Mar 10, 2021

Visualizing the impact of spend choice

As in the last post, nothing really new to me or the literature here. 

This is how it works at RH: if I go back to old code I wrote -- even if it is well commented -- long ago, I often have no idea what I did then and I usually can't make it work well without a bunch of work and we here at RH are a little lazy. So when I have new code I will sometimes pile on: "hmmm, I wonder what x would look like as long as I have this code up?" That was certainly the case with the last post where a reader, reasonably, asked "what am I missing, this is simple?" yep, just goofin around. 

The same kind of thing can be said for this post. I mean, how many MC sim charts have we seen? A ton. So, I am adding nothing here, I just wanted to look at what spending -- which I, and we, already know pretty well -- does to a portfolio but only in terms that the code "I was just working on" speaks. 

1. Spending in a Standard Simulation Overlay

Here is an N[.04,.12] portfolio over 30 periods with and without spend. I am not displaying the geometric return here as a separate chart because the internal return engine is unaffected by spending (unless we were to re-allocate in response to behavioral stimuli, which we might). 

- grey/blue(median) lines are "no spend"

- red/black(median) lines are "with spending" 

- Y axis is net wealth with initial wealth = 1, and X is time period 

- spend rate = (0% grey, 4% red) in this example

Figure1. Sim paths for different spending assumptions (0 v 4%)
with median wealth in blue and black for (0 and 4%)


Ok, so this is a bit banal. What, if anything, can we say?

  • net wealth in accumulation mode can approach zero but not punch through
  • the upside outliers without spending can get quite large
  • the median wealth without spending at each step rises convexly 
  • spending can force wealth to and through zero (ignore negative wealth for now)
  • the median wealth under these "with spending" parameters looks like it is in a process of slowly wasting the fecundity of the portfolio. 
  • The outlier "with spend" paths breach the zero bound as early as 17-18 years
  • I probably should have put in "percentile of sim distribution" lines....but didn't
  • The mass of red (with spend) is dispersed much lower than grey but that's always a "duh."
  • It might be possible to meaningfully compare 2 well defined spend-portfolio combos using this method but looking at broad array of choices would be a little ad hoc and hit-and-miss I think

2. Spend Choice Viewed via "Portfolio Longevity in Years" 

This is not something new to me. I did this effort in a series back in 2019. But, contrasted with the above, I do think this was kinda additive. I have seen exactly zero papers or books that look at the problem like this. I even got a thumbs up emoji from Prof Milevsky on Twitter once for something related to this which is like getting a gold medal, maybe silver. Heh.  

The idea here, in this section, is to roll a sim not in terms of net wealth paths or fail rates or "magnitudes" but rather in terms of a distribution (probability mass from empirical sim data, or in frequency terms as in Figure 2) of years that a portfolio lasts (horizon = infinity or 100y in this example) under a set of assumptions that include a pegged but stochastic return assumption as well as then rolling through different spend rates. In this case the peg was a portfolio r = N[.04,.10] so a little apples and oranges vis-a-vis #1 above, but close enough.

Figure 2. Spending effects on Portfolio Longevity


Here, 2% withdrawal is kind of like the no spend scenario, while the 100 year horizon stands in, imperfectly, for time=infinity. What, if anything can we say about this?

  • There is quite a bit more, a ton more, info content packed in here compared to Figure 1
  • As the spend rate goes down the rate of, or % of portfolios lasting to, infinity goes up faster then slower (ie non linear)
  • High spend rates have a very small, to the left, distribution of PL. Good for someone with a near term death sentence perhaps
  • The rate at which portfolios tip over to infinity -- the d(PL)/ds at inf (?) -- is maxed at about the geometric return assumption for the horizon. This is not proven but seems like it visually and makes intellectual sense for now. Correct me on this if you have a better view. 
  • None of this includes any chaos from outside the model, a nuke strike which would maybe vote for lower spend rates...which is also a way of saying "redundant capital" but no one I know speaks like that, so: lower spend is a reserve for the unknown in longer retirements. 
  • If I wanted to visualize spend impact, "many" spends, at a meta-level like figure 2 might be useful. On the other hand, if I were to do it side by side, comparing only 2 strategies, some variation of Figure 1 and/or simpler models might be more useful. In this case I am thinking of the Fibonacci formula for PL in Milevsky's book but it might be something else. The only thing you want to make sure you capture is the dispersion/uncertainty and there are some different ways to do it. It's just that, as far as I can remember, when we add spending we mostly leave deterministic var models behind. Might be wrong. TBD





7 comments:

  1. Cool chart.
    Spend rate < geo return resulting in less PL of 100% cfi spend rate ~ geo return strikes me as curious. I think this is your 4th bullet point above and to my eyes that is what the chart says. Is there some other mechanism at work or formula effects, and what does w=0% look like?

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    1. Didn't 100% follow but I'll take a shot. Don't know about formulas other than the diff eq of stochastic calc which are hard for me to follow tho I sometimes attempt to parrot them when I have finished my happy hour ;-) . I tried to go into more depth here https://drive.google.com/file/d/1D7cNhMAS1JAhjtE9wBGwV-bPrMT_W_na/view?usp=sharing starting on page 69. I think that basically in spending below the long term geo return one is *not* strip mining the portfolio of its fecundity (see Garland link below) and so it at least has some capacity to refresh itself and maybe grow. Above that geo point (which is not guaranteed ex-post), I think, that over enough time one will deplete a portfolio to zero, maybe...or at least probabilistically. At w=0 it'd just be an accumulation portfolio and will last forever. It might asymptotically approach zero but never get there so in PL terms 100% of portfolios will last forever in theory -- so the distribution is whatever the mathematicians/statisticians call a single outcome at infinity or at least at some arbitrary horizon. Ed Thorp in his last book said that in endowment terms a 2% spend is about where a perpetuity starts. That is probably about right but as u can see above: a) even 2% has some residual PL risk and b) over short horizons obviously we can spend quiet a bit more. J Garland had an interesting take on this long term sustainability thing in "the Fecundity of Endowments and Long Duration Trusts" from which I pulled the term Fecundity which is useful in this context. https://www.northwoodfamilyoffice.com/wp-content/uploads/2015/03/James_Garland_Fecundity_of_Endowments.pdf Also, as an aside, Milevsky's deterministic Fibonacci formula for PL from his "7 Equations..." book is useful in its transparency and concision. I used to keep some formulas around here https://rivershedge.blogspot.com/p/here-are-retirement-formulas-i-seem-to.html (see Formula 1) but haven't updated it lately.

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  2. Will,
    My Q hopefully more clearly stated (it was relatively late here when I asked yesterday) is why is the 100%PL peak not at the lowest W, but rather at ~geo return?
    OK - on reflection the W=0% is a bit of a dumb check.
    However, another simple sanity check would be to turn the variance down to almost 0, at which point the dispersion should intuitively become very small and the graph should, I think, show highest 100% PL at the lowest w rates?
    What do you reckon?

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    1. Yeah, lower vol will goose PL. at 0% vol you'd have a guaranteed return so one might expect to see single point "distributions" (deterministic outcome) at each spend rate for a given return.

      I see what you are asking now. First, the point where the spend rate looks like it is = geo return is not the "peak" you see, it is the point where the slope of the rising frequency of 100 year portfolios is at the max slope. That can be seen better in the link below. Not sure why there is a "peak" in the 3D at 100 years at spend just > 2%. Must've been something I did in Excel, or maybe a simulation artifact, which in theory might subvert any trust in the chart but I did it a zillion times in R where there wasn't a peak so idk. I'm scratching my head on that one. Check out Figure 2 in https://rivershedge.blogspot.com/2019/05/my-portfolio-longevity-modeling.html. Not sure if I have the calculus right, though, since that is not a strong skill.

      This 3D exercise was from adapting a snippet of code I borrowed from Prof Milevsky and which appears in his new book "Retirement Recipes in R." I adapted it for this purpose. Spend rates were uniformly randomized while the return volatility was modeled as normal for better or worse. There might have been some natural variation in the uniform dist if I did not use enough iterations or something. TBD.

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    2. Will, thanks for the response. I did wonder about the iterations too - and I noted the 50k, but was unsure if this meant 50k total, or 50k / wd, or what exactly. I did also ponder if it would be worth stretching "infinity" to 200 years or possibly even more?

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    3. I replied below, not sure if you see it if I reply to my own blog which is what I did...

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  3. I probably won't go back and figure it out. The code is so simple that it is robust so not too worried about it. 50k is just the number of times the PL code is run with the parameters, ie the parallel worlds. Re 100 years. I don't think it matters. Either a portfolio is playing in the "I might run out of money" space or it is playing in the "I might last forever" space. 100 stands in for the latter without much problem which can be seen in Fig 2. Changing to 200 doesn't add much and creates some (minor) runtime and graphing hassles. I could probably change it to 1,000,000 years and the distribution would still be a similar "defective" shape.

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