Here is a blog post from the CFA institute about whether
volatility is risk. That is a good question and something we have touched on
before. It is a very short cover and has
some constructive, additive points on the topic. On the other hand it biases, in my opinion,
against spenders a tiny bit though it does, thankfully and to his credit, not exclude them from the
analysis. It's just that he says that
for them it's more or less not that big of a deal. I disagree. It is entirely possible that spending and
expected returns will in fact dwarf the effects of vol but neither is vol trivial for
us. It seems dumb for me to "digest" a one page article but digest we will
(it'll take one minute to read so click thru too). Here are some of the main points from the linked post:
- Volatility is one of the biggest risks in investing according to conventional financial wisdom. A small minority of investors, mostly value investors — a group to which I belong — take a different view. We think it is the probability of permanent capital loss, not volatility, that constitutes the real risk. Neither perspective is entirely correct.
- Warren Buffett famously said that as a long-term investor he would “much rather earn a lumpy 15% over time than a smooth 12%.”
- Long-Term Investors with Strong “Stomachs” -- volatility is not a risk
- Short-Term Investors -- Volatility is a primary risk
- Long-Term Investors with Weak “Stomachs” -- should treat volatility as a risk for behavioral reasons
- Long-Term Investors Who Consistently Spend Small Portions -- Volatility matters to some degree, but it is not the main risk.
1. He is correct in
this statement when he arrives at the last sentence.
2. Warren
must (tongue in cheek) not know finance theory. He should really specify how lumpy is lumpy
Let's look at the expected value of two strategies with the return and lumps (I
pick the lumps since he does not say) he
described. Here is a sim of geometric returns over time (25 periods) with: a): 15%
return and 30% std deviation in blue, and b) 12% return and 15 % std deviation in red:
I don't know but that "12 % smooth" is starting to look ok. My guess however is that he (Warren) is really talking about 15 vs 12 at the end of a process rather than the beginning in which case that should be clarified and after which I am pretty much on board with Warren before we talk about spending.
3. In the context of the response to # 2 I'm thinking he is not 100% correct here. This should be clarified as well.
4. Yeah, I think this
is right
5. Yeah, I think this is right
6. I think he is
right-ish here but I also think that it is both underplayed a bit and also belied
by his own simulation where he shows the risk can drop by orders of magnitude
for spenders with a less "lumpy" portfolio. Since he uses a fixed duration, just for fun let's up the
ante a bit and use my new JPA tool which hews to the known theory of estimating
ruin risk. I'll "see" his two scenarios
(s1 = 8% ret, 15% std dev, 5% spend; s2 = 8% return, 10% std dev, 5%
spend) and raise with stochastic longevity so that we can get a more
analytically rigorous take on this. We'll assume a 55 year old because we like early
retirees and assume a mode and dispersion of longevity in a gompertz formula of 90 and
9 which is somewhere near the shape of the SOA annuitant mortality distribution for someone around this age. Now let's re-run his sims on JPA:
Scenario 1 - Lifetime ruin risk-- him (14%) me (12.5%)
Scenario 2 - Lifetime ruin risk -- him (3%) me(2.4%)
Actually this is interesting and I was kinda surprised. It looks like we are playing
the same game and I thought I'd have some bigger edge in analysis and I don't[1]. But either way I still think that a drop of that magnitude in fail risk for lower vol cannot be ignored by spenders. The
question is maybe whether spending reduction or vol reduction will get a bigger lift for
the effort. My guess is spending so he is probably right in the end. As a side note, he does not say
anything about whether his returns are net (inflation, taxes fees) or whether
they are arithmetic or geometric. If we ding his what-I-assume-to-be "linear and un-netted" 8% down to 5% and then re-run the
lifetime fail risk is over 30%. That would get my attention but is not really the point of this discussion, is it?
My general comment, which I've made before, is that yes
permanent loss of capital is risk more so than "volatility as volatility" but
that: a) for portfolios without spending the long term effects of volatility on
geometric returns can in fact be a form of loss (expected opportunity loss but
loss nonetheless) depending on where one is starting with one's expectations, and that b) for portfolios with a spending constraint,
volatility can precipitate permanent loss of capital in terms of an earlier or
bigger fail via sequence risk or just the pernicious effects of lumpy
returns. Volatility is risk in both
of these cases because we are losing real money one way or another. One just has to decide how much (vol) is too much or how much less is best and that we have not answered.
---------------------------------------
[1] here is a better view of changes in lifetime fail rate estimates for changes in vol for some scenario I was playing around with last week.
It was excellent and very informative. CFA Level 1, CFA Level 2, CFA Level 3 Institute at Kolkata
ReplyDeleteIf I had seven fingered hands I could count on my hands the number of comments I've had over two years so I appreciate the comment. On a re-read I don't make as much sense to myself as I probably thought I did at the time. The points are probably more or less correct but I would likely say it in a different way today. Those last two sentences are true for everything else on the blog.
Delete